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  1. No, it was a transfer of power from landed nobility to the mercantile class. There was no revolution except in France, but that was not a capitalist revolution. It was a republican revolution triggered by the excesses of the crown. Ironically one of those excesses was funding the American revolution

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  2. No, oh gods no, not at all, that’s a myth perpetrated by capitalists, it was a tool of aristocracy and their adjacent classes (merchants, trades guilds), there has never been a peasants revolt for the sake of capitalism, they were almost always due to climate impacting food or oppressive taxation.

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